Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 01:40
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How did the Nazis figure out whether a person or community is 'Aryan' or not?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What was the craziest place that you had sex with someone in public?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?